An introduction to the Weierstrass M-test: Part IV
I think this will be the last post in this series. This time we will look at the special case of power series, using Theorem 5 from the previous part to help us to justify differentiation term by term.
Notation: Recall that we denote the set N∪{0} of non-negative integers by N0.
Recall the statement of our Theorem 5.
Theorem 5 (Term by term differentiation of series)
Let I be a nondegenerate interval in R, and let Mn (n∈N0) be non-negative real numbers such that ∑∞n=0Mn<∞.
Let fn (n∈N0) be differentiable functions from I to R, and suppose that, for all n∈N0 and all x∈I, we have |f′n(x)|≤Mn.
Suppose further that, for all x∈I, the series ∑∞n=0fn(x) converges.
Define f:I→R by
f(x)=∞∑n=0fn(x).
Then f is differentiable on I, and, for each x∈I,
f′(x)=∞∑n=0f′n(x).
We are now ready to prove our main result about power series.
Theorem 6 (convergence and differentiability of power series)
Let x0∈R, and let an (n∈N0) be real numbers. Let t0∈R with t0≠x0, and suppose that the series ∑∞n=0an(t0−x0)n converges.
Set R=|t0−x0|, and set J=(x0−R,x0+R). Then the following hold.
(a) For all x∈J, both of the series ∑∞n=0an(x−x0)n and ∑∞n=1nan(x−x0)n−1 converge absolutely (and hence they converge).
(b) Define f:J→R by
f(x)=∞∑n=0an(x−x0)n.
Then f is differentiable on J and, for all x∈J,
f′(x)=∞∑n=1nan(x−x0)n−1.
Comments
- We are investigating the convergence of the power series ∑∞n=0an(x−x0)n, and the properties of the resulting function.
- We assume that the series converges when x=t0 for some particular t0≠x0. The existence of such a t0 is not guaranteed. (It depends on the sequence.) Of course the series does always converge when x=x0.
- If we actually know that the series converges for all x∈R, then the rest of the theorem also applies for all x∈R. For example, this applies to the standard power series for exp, sin and cos.
- Our proof of Theorem 6 uses Theorem 5, but we won't set I=J, because we can't be sure that the conditions of Theorem 5 are satisfied on J. Fortunately it is enough to prove that, for all r∈(0,R), Theorem 5 applies on (x0−r,x0+r). (Or we can work on [x0−r,x0+r].)
- All we really need to know about R here is that the sequence |an|Rn is bounded.
- Several parts of our argument resemble the proof we gave in class of the Ratio Test for series.
f(x)=∞∑n=0an(x−x0)n=∞∑n=0fn(x).
(We know that this series converges for each x∈J by (a).)
We now wish to apply Theorem 5. But to do this we have to work on slightly smaller intervals, in order to obtain the constants Mn we need.
It is enough to prove that, for all r∈(0,R), the result holds for all x∈(x0−r,x0+r).
Let r∈(0,R), and set I=(x0−r,x0+r). Set β=r/R∈(0,1).
For each n∈N0, set fn(x)=an(x−x0)n. In particular, f0(x)=a0, a constant function.
Each function fn is differentiable on I and, for n∈N and x∈I, we have
f′n(x)=nan(x−x0)n−1.
For n=0 there could be an issue with this expression when x=x0, but in any case f′0(x)=0 and this won't affect anything.
We for x∈I and n∈N, we have
|f′n(x)|=n|an||x−x0|n−1≤n|an|rn−1=1rn|an|rn=1rnβn|an|Rn≤Krnβn.
For each n∈N0, set Mn=Krnβn. Then, for all x∈I and all n∈N0, we have
|f′n(x)|≤Mn
(Here n=0 is a trivial special case.)
In order to apply Theorem 5, all we need now is to show that the series ∑∞n=0Mn converges. We can ignore the term M0=0.
Recall that β∈(0,1) here. For each n∈N, we have
Mn=Krnβn>0.
(We eliminated the case K=0 as trivial earlier. But we could always work with K+1 instead. We could also use n+1 if we wanted to include n=0.)
We may now apply the ratio test for series (but see also the final comment below). We have
|Mn+1||Mn|=Mn+1Mn=n+1nβ→β<1
as n→∞. Thus we have
∞∑n=0Mn<∞,
and so we can apply Theorem 5 to see that f is differentiable on (x0−r,x0+r), with
f′(x)=∞∑n=0f′n(x)=∞∑n=1nan(x−x0)n−1
for all x∈(x0−r,x0+r).
Since this is true for all r∈(0,R), the result holds for all x∈J=(x0−R,x0+R). ◻
Comments
- If we had tried to use I=J=(x0−R,x0+R) directly, we would not have obtained suitable Mn this way, because we would have had r=R, β=1, and then ∑∞n=0Krnβn diverges.
- With only a little more work, we see that we can continue to differentiate our power series term by term on J=(x0−R,x0+R) as often as we like. So f is infinitely differentiable on J, and the derivatives are exactly what we expect. We can't necessarily use the same t0 for the higher derivatives. But if we take any R1∈(x0−R,x0+R), we can use the same interval J1=(x0−R1,x0+R1) for all of the derivatives. Indeed, we then have, for each k∈N,
n(n−1)⋯(n−k+1)anRn−k1→0 as n→∞, which is enough for us to obtain the next order derivative. - For each t∈(−1,1) the series ∑∞n=1ntn−1 is actually a fairly standard convergent series, with sum 1/(1−t)2. Given this, we can multiply by any constant C∈R to see that (for such t)
∞∑n=1Cntn−1=C(1−t)2,
and similarly
∞∑n=1Cntn=∞∑n=1Ctntn−1=Ct(1−t)2.
Quoting these (with t=α and t=β above) would save us two applications of the ratio test, because we would already know those series converge.
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