Discussion of the proof that the uniform norm really is a norm
In response to a request on Piazza, I gave a detailed proof that the uniform really is a norm, including some comments and warnings on possible pitfalls along the way. Here (essentially) is what I said. Let’s have a look at \|\cdot\|_\infty on the bounded, real-valued functions on [0,1] (but you can also work with bounded functions on any non-empty set you like, and the same proof will work). We define \ell_\infty([0,1]) = \{f: f \textrm{ is a bounded, real-valued function on }[0,1]\,\}\,, and this is the set/space we will look at. So we set Y=\ell_\infty([0,1]). Then you can check for yourselves that Y really is a vector space over \mathbb{R} (using the usual "pointwise" operations for functions). Note that the zero element in this vector space is the constant function 0 (from [0,1] to \mathbb{R}), which I'll denote by \mathbf{0} here for clarity. (We also used Z for this function in one of the exercises.) I'll first give...